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email quiz

#1 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2016-October-30, 11:13

KTxxxx...x....KQJx....Ax

imps both vul. 2/1 gf


1s=1nt
2d=3h


1) What does 3h show?
2) is 3h forcing?
3) your call now?
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#2 User is offline   MrAce 

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Posted 2016-October-30, 12:36

View Postmike777, on 2016-October-30, 11:13, said:

KTxxxx...x....KQJx....Ax

imps both vul. 2/1 gf


1s=1nt
2d=3h


1) What does 3h show?
2) is 3h forcing?
3) your call now?


It depends on your other agreements in the system

if 1--3 was invitational, or if 2 response followed by 3 is invitational then this auction you have is a splinter agreeing on diamonds.
If there was no way of showing 6 card and an invitational hand then your auction shows invitation in hearts.


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#3 User is offline   rmnka447 

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Posted 2016-October-30, 14:47

Lacking any special agreements, it should show the 10-12 point hand with 6 decent . After opener's 1 followed by 2 over the Forcing NT, opener's hand has shown 8+ cards in the pointed suits. So there's no guarantee of a fit. Therefore, partner has to take that into consideration when bidding 3 and needs to have a suit that could play opposite a stiff or small doubleton. Occasionally, that may mean that responder has to bid 2 NT as a catchall bid when holding 10-12 with 5 or 6+ with bad spots.

It is not forcing. To go on, you need to be in the top end of the simple rebid zone (really good 14 - 16) over the Forcing NT.

The possible choices over 3 are 3 or pass. Since, like responder, there's no guarantee of a fit in your suit (), you need to consider whether you'd like to play 3 opposite a small stiff or doubleton. With the poor quality of the suit and suggested misfit with responder's 3 bid, I'd pass.

BTW, I'd initially rebid 2 over 1 NT rather than 2 . Although you have a 5 loser hand, it's still only 13 HCP. The major feature of the hand -- the suit is somewhat poor.
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