[Echognome]

♠xx
♥AQ
♦QJxx
♣AKQJ9

1♣ - 1♦
?

How to proceed from here?

[655321]

2NT for me.
Not pretty, but what can you do?

[Cascade]

Echognome, on Feb 19 2008, 10:43 PM, said:

♠xx
♥AQ
♦QJxx
♣AKQJ9

1♣ - 1♦
?

How to proceed from here?

Good question ...

We have lots of artificial raises for awkward hands but this is one hand that we don't have a sensible bid for and we are worse off than standard since we do not have a natural 2NT.

I guess in a standard system the choices are:

2NT a distortion with four diamonds and no spade stopper

3♦ an underbid

4♦ gross with 2=2=4=5 although on second thoughts maybe it should show this as with more distribution you can splinter in a major.

[rogerclee]

If 1♦ usually denies holding a 4cM except for hands that want to GF, I could be convinced to bid some lead-averting spades before settling in 3NT. Not sure how silly this is though; I don't try this strategy routinely.

[gnasher]

Play 1C-1D-1H as forcing, so that 2H can show a strong raise.

Without that agreement, I'd bid 2H. If partner raised, I'd bid 4D, which has to show this hand type.

Edit: I've changed my mind. I'd make a 3S splinter. If partner bids 3NT, that's probably the right spot and we may be playing it the right way around. If he doesn't, we're probably in the right strain, and I may have talked them out of the best lead.

This post has been edited by gnasher: 2008-February-19, 04:57

[whereagles]

3♦. Should be forcing because you'd be stuck it it weren't

If it isn't, 2NT

[655321]

gnasher, on Feb 19 2008, 05:15 AM, said:

Edit: I've changed my mind.  I'd make a 3S splinter.  If partner bids 3NT, that's probably the right spot and we may be playing it the right way around.  If he doesn't, we're probably in the right strain, and I may have talked them out of the best lead.

If partner wants to play in 3NT opposite diamond support and a singleton spade, you can be sure that the best lead for them is a heart through the AQ, and your auction has just achieved this.

It's OK, I don't have any great answer for this hand either.

[P_Marlowe]

3NT.

At least we will play game.

The disadv. of 2NT and 3D is, it can be
passed.
But if one of those bids would be
forcing, we would not have a problem.

4D is an option, but depending on your
response style (Walsh), 1D may be based
on a 3 carder.

With kind regards
Marlowe

[gnasher]

655321, on Feb 19 2008, 01:29 PM, said:

gnasher, on Feb 19 2008, 05:15 AM, said:

I'd make a 3S splinter.  If partner bids 3NT, that's probably the right spot and we may be playing it the right way around.

If partner wants to play in 3NT opposite diamond support and a singleton spade, you can be sure that the best lead for them is a heart through the AQ, and your auction has just achieved this.

Not necessarily. A heart lead through me may be preferable to a spade lead through partner. KJx Kxx 10xxx xxx or KJx Jxx Kxxx xxx, for example. Or, they may lead a spade anyway - they will be certain from the auction that they have at least eight spades between them, and will be expecting me to have three hearts a fair amount of the time.

[helene_t]

2N, might have opened 2N.

[mike777]

I would have just rebid a simple 3D.
Typical very wide range for this bid but I do tell partner 9 of my cards (no 1D opener) and that I got extras.
Hopefully my failure to rebid 2nt or splinter will help her out.
I assume Walsh, which means partner would have started with a 4 card major before longer minor with less than game force hand.
I assume if we are NV, partner with short clubs can respond 1D with almost nothing (Kokish).

edit:It may be of some help also if we rebid 3D and partner knows we open 1nt with 2245 hands in our nt range. Now our failure to open 1nt or rebid 2nt or splinter may help partner guess our hand or at least limit the choices.

[pclayton]

Glad I play T-walsh

2♥ playing something standard.

xx xx AKQx AKQJx might be a tougher hand.

[helene_t]

How does T-walsh solve this problem, Phil? Not sure what to bid with this hand over partner's 1♠ (transfer to diamonds)

[cherdano]

helene_t, on Feb 19 2008, 11:51 AM, said:

How does T-walsh solve this problem, Phil? Not sure what to bid with this hand over partner's 1♠ (transfer to diamonds)

Some T-Walsh players don't have a way to show diamonds below the 2-level, so if partner bids 1♠ he can still have some sort of balanced range and 2♦ is a forcing reverse. I think it's more an artefact of the system (we don't know of the fit yet, yeah!) than a solution to a problem...

[pclayton]

helene_t, on Feb 19 2008, 09:51 AM, said:

How does T-walsh solve this problem, Phil? Not sure what to bid with this hand over partner's 1♠ (transfer to diamonds)

Because for us 1♠ is either diamonds or a weak balanced hand. 1♣ - 1♠ - 2♦ is still a 'true' reverse.

Not universal in T-Walsh I know but thats what we play.

[mikeh]

pclayton, on Feb 19 2008, 01:53 PM, said:

helene_t, on Feb 19 2008, 09:51 AM, said:

How does T-walsh solve this problem, Phil? Not sure what to bid with this hand over partner's 1♠ (transfer to diamonds)

Because for us 1♠ is either diamonds or a weak balanced hand. 1♣ - 1♠ - 2♦ is still a 'true' reverse.

Not universal in T-Walsh I know but thats what we play.

It's also my style: 1♠ is either 5-7 or 11-12 balanced or any hand with diamonds, so 2♦ by opener is a reverse.

I just renewed an old partnership, and I have him playing T-walsh (or my version of it, I don't know how orthodox it is) and he keeps pointing out that we haven't picked up any good results from it so far: well, now I have a hand to show him

In fairness, we did have a chance last weekend when we got to play in 1♠ after 1♣ 1♦ 1♥ 1♠ all pass, where 1♥ showed 2-3 hearts, a minimum, usually balanced or semi-balanced, and 1♠ was natural, non-invitational. However, the lie of the cards was friendly and the superior 1♠ (on a 4-3)pushed against the lucky 1N

[Yogeshdg]

2♥ first and if pd shows game interest try for slam in diamonds or NT . If he simply bids 3♣ or repeats ♦ just bid 3♠ asking for ♠stopper.

If he bids 3nt pass. If he bids 4♦ denying ♠ stopper bid 5♦ and end it.

[Impact]

Surely it depends on the parameters of the 1D response beyond natural (eg denying 4M unless at least invitational, strength of 1NT response to 1C, fit-jumps etc, meaning of 2NT response to 1C etc).

Assuming it shows D and tends to deny a 4M unless at least Invitational, I would rather bid 4D direct than wrongside by bidding 2NT and then making a guess over 3NT. there is some attraction to the 3S splinter (except that partner bids 3NT and then they lead a H through A and then S through his holding but maybe 9 tricks anyway)...

On a simple level just bid 4D descriptively (he virtually needs specific wrong cards with 5D332 for 3NT to make and 5D to be going down) as slam prospects are enhanced by at least one of us making descriptive bids - and the way most play a 1D response I envisage greater slam prospects in D than I do anything else so it would be foolish with the surfeit of values to fool partner....

regards

[the hog]

4D. Highly amused by 2H if this is meant to be "natural" and not some conventional bid.