[jdonn]

1.)

Scoring: IMP

---

1♥ 3♠* 3NT* 4♣ 4♥ p

3♠ shows a mini-splinter in any suit, usually 9-11 in high cards, though 'points' are not the overriding concern, opener asked for the suit and signed off when he found out it was clubs. Who is to blame for missing slam? Should responder show the stronger splinter? Should opener do something over 4♣, perhaps a 4♦ last train? Should responder move over 4♥ with his void since 3NT showed some kind of interest, or is that even 'allowed'?


2.)AKJx xxx KJT9xx -, w/w, LHO deals.
1♣ p 3NT(13-15) ?


3.)x xx AK9xx KQT98, r/w, you deal
1♦ p 1NT 4♠ ?


4.)

Scoring: IMP

---

East opens 1♣, west bids 1♥ if possible, east bids 2♣ if possible. Is there a reasonable auction to slam in the face of this opposition bidding? No artificial 1NT overcalls or methods that show both suits at once over 1♣ allowed!


5.)1♣ X p 1♠ X p 2NT
What in blazes does that bid mean?'

EDIT: Numbers added. The first idea of Luis's I ever liked

[FrancesHinden]

jdonn, on May 15 2006, 04:42 PM, said:

AKJx xxx KJT9xx -, w/w, LHO deals.
1♣ p 3NT(13-15) ?

Without discussion, 4C = Michaels, Dbl = take-out of clubs.
I think I double. Second choice Pass, third 4D.

Quote

x xx AK9xx KQT98, r/w, you deal
1♦ p 1NT 4♠ ?

5C, assuming partner has promised 4+ clubs (as mine have)

Quote

Dealer: East Vul: None Scoring: IMP

♠ T9xxx ♥ Axxx ♦ x ♣ xxx ♠ AKQxx ♥ Q ♦ AJxxx ♣ Ax

East opens 1♣, west bids 1♥ if possible, east bids 2♣ if possible. Is there a reasonable auction to slam in the face of this opposition bidding? No artificial 1NT overcalls or methods that show both suits at once over 1♣ allowed!

1C 1S P 4S
P 6S all pass

You can slow down the auction a bit if you like, but that seems to work fairly well

Quote

1♣ X p 1♠ X p 2NT
What in blazes does that bid mean?

Don't know.
How about a good 3C bid?

[hatchett]

I like to distinguish between voids and singletons and the first hand is a good example why. I think the opening bidder is probably worth a last train though, you know partner isn't going too crazy looking at AK in both majors and something like xxx QTxx AKxxx x opposite offers play and partner might have more.

Quote

  AKJx xxx KJT9xx -, w/w, LHO deals.
1♣ p 3NT(13-15) ?

If double is take-out of clubs that's perfect. If double just means it's going off very tough between pass and 4♦. My club holding heightens suspicion that 3NT might have been semi-tactical on say AKxxxxx clubs and not much else.

Quote

x xx AK9xx KQT98, r/w, you deal
1♦ p 1NT 4♠ ?

5c

Quote

1♣ X p 1♠ X p 2NT
What in blazes does that bid mean?

I assume partner would have raised clubs in some way with long clubs and would bid hearts with hearts. Thus my guess is 5/6♦ with 3♣s.

[luis]

Maybe you want to number each problem in your original post so we'll know who is answering what :-)

Problem 1) "The one with the splinter"

I don't like the splinter with a void. That is the source of all the problems. opener thinks he has a club loser when he doesn't.

Problem 2) "The one with 1♣ - p - 3NT"

I bid 4♦ if this is too simple I'm sorry :-)

Problem 3) "The one where we opened 1♦"

4♠, pd's 1NT promises cards in the minors, bidding 4♠ I will let LHO double and he will then argue "I already doubled 4♠" when they don't bid 5♠ over pd's 5♣.

Problem 4) "The one where they bid 3 times and we have a slam"

1♣ - Dbl - 1♥ - Dbl(4+ he)
2♣ - 3♣ - pass - 3♠
4♠ - pass

And Now I think North with an ace, 5 spades and a singleton might bid 4NT,
I'm not saying he MUST but he certainly might.

Problem 5) "The one with the blazing meaning"

I believe 2NT shows a weak two-suited hand with the red suits.

Luis

[whereagles]

jdonn, on May 15 2006, 03:42 PM, said:

1.)

Dealer: North Vul: None Scoring: IMP

♠ AKxx ♥ AKJxx ♦ xx ♣ Kx ♠ QJxx ♥ QTxx ♦ Axxxx ♣

1♥ 3♠* 3NT* 4♣ 4♥ p

3♠ shows a mini-splinter in any suit, usually 9-11 in high cards, though 'points' are not the overriding concern, opener asked for the suit and signed off when he found out it was clubs. Who is to blame for missing slam? Should responder show the stronger splinter? Should opener do something over 4♣, perhaps a 4♦ last train? Should responder move over 4♥ with his void since 3NT showed some kind of interest, or is that even 'allowed'?

Slam is good because of the superb double fit. I don't think there's any sensible way to get there after 3♠. The splinter is ok, though. It would have worked fine on most occasions. Bridge is a guessing game, but you already know that

I'll have a look at the others later.

[pclayton]

1) Are you playing Last Train? Even though North has a worthless K♣; South has a minimum splinter IMO. After 4♣, North is sort of stuck, but I think signing off is rather pessimistic with a 5 loser hand. I'd still try 4♠ as North, since I think we have safety at the 5 level.

2) 4♦. Takeout double is possible, but its also a sure fire way to play your 4-3 heart fit. This isn't our deal, but 4♦ doesn't look too expensive either. It also might goad them back into clubs, which pard probably likes.

3) 5♣ looks normal, but apparently its not, since you posted the hand.

4) Tough one; I'd start with 1♠ and presumably pard jumps to 4♠. To now take the hand to 6♠ is a bit much, but I think the hand is worth a 5♣ cue and see if it begets a 5♦ call (which it will).

5) I have no idea what 2N means, and I wouldn't know even after 5 minutes at the table. Did Marshall spring this on you?

[awm]

(1) I blame this on north. With 18 high including such prime major suit values it's often right to make a try opposite a splinter. Pretty much any hand with a club void will make 6♥ excellent, and some hands with singletons also give play (Qxx Qxxx AKxxx x and slam is cold, take away a major suit queen and it still has plenty of chances).

(2) 4♦. Obviously this could be a disaster, but the opponents almost surely have a big club fit here (I'd suspect opener to have six). Often we will not end in 4♦X even if that is the best spot for the opponents. If double of 3NT is takeout (and not penalty or optional) then this might be a better call.

(3) Pass. Certainly there are hands where 5♣ makes, or where 5-minor is one down opposite 4♠ making. On the other hand, bidding is liable to be a disaster if partner has wasted cards in spades (in this case 4♠ might even fail, and 5-minor will also fail, quite possibly doubled). The real problem is that 5♣ ought to show a better hand than this at unfavorable. If partner has one of those rare hands where 5♣ makes (say xxx Axx xx Axxxx) then he's liable to raise to 6♣. Note that despite the excellent high cards (two aces) even 5♣ will go down here if we move one small club to a small diamond... Most of the time I expect 5-minor to fail, and while one down might be a good sacrifice against 4♠, aiming for one down at unfavorable seems silly.

(4) I think I'd overcall 1♠ and hope to survive the auction. Obviously bad things might happen if this passes out, but if I start with a double I will never get to show both suits and someone (as often as not partner) will be bidding hearts in the near future. After this start I'd expect partner to raise to 4♠, at which point I can cuebid or use rkc.

(5) Well 2NT should be two places to play. Probably a weak hand with a bunch of diamonds and either a partial fit for clubs (like 3♣) or a four-card heart suit. Of course it's Marshall across the table so really it's anybody's guess.

[inquiry]

One with minisplinter, I am with luis, DONT SPLINTER with a void. I would start with an un-imaginative 2♦ GF. So I would start laying the blame at south's feet, but these are methods I don't care for (splinters with voids) so figuring out who went the worse after 3♠ is not something I am up for... but I will say this, if yhou are using mini and max splinter, this hand would qualify for a maxi one I think.


2.)AKJx xxx KJT9xx -, w/w, LHO deals.
1♣ p 3NT(13-15) ?

Double, takeout of clubs

3.)x xx AK9xx KQT98, r/w, you deal
1♦ p 1NT 4♠ ?

Very lawful 5♣'s

4) One where we are not allowed to show two suits at once...funny system... but ok...

(1♣)-1♠-(pass)-4♠
Pass

Cant bid them all..,, or folllow the auction given by Frances

5.)1♣      (X)      p      (1♠)
     X      (p)      2NT
What in blazes does that bid mean?'

With ♣'s my partner bids immediately, with good hand my partner redbls or bids over the double or possibly passes 1♠X. So, partner does not have a good hand and does not have a bad hand with clubs. Thus, he has a bad hand without spades and without clubs. The question is can this be some kind of one suited hand or is it two suited in the reds? I think if he had a one suiter he would just bid it here at the two or three level. So I think he has both red suits and wants me to pick the right spot.

[mikeh]

1. I would not splinter: altho my 'solution' may be as bad, on other hands, as the splinter, or even worse. I am not using my retroscope for the non-splinter: I think my posts have consistently stated my opposition to splintering on a void.

Since I am forcing to game, I would bid 2♦. I am not sure how the auction would/should proceed after that: so I am not claiming that this start would result in a drive to slam, but I think it increases the chances.

2. I bid 4♦: I'd like double to be takeout of ♣, but I would only make the call if partner and I had discussed it, and I suspect we have not. I do not really want to be on lead v. 3N x'd (I'd lead a high ♠ and then think). I would not be worried about a 4-3 ♥ fit if I could double for takeout: I think partner can and should bid 4♣ to get preference from me... I don't think 4♣ could logically be construed as a slam try by him

3. 5♣ looks automatic, but obviously could be wrong... any guess could be wrong, but 5♣ looks like the percentage action

4. I would always overcall 1♠ on this hand, and then as North, I think 4♠ is okay... just a little too much playing strength for 3 preemptive ♠ and not enough for constructive bidding. Now the only realistic chance is the shot espoused by Frances: a unilateral jump to slam... I'd need to be in a very optimistic frame of mind to do that at the table...

5. I would have no idea which of several possible hands partner is sitting there with: I only know that he thinks that he has made a very intelligent bid and that he has paid me the (mistaken) compliment of thinking that I think as he does

If it was Mr. Miles who did this (and I have never had the pleasure of meeting him, but I have profound respect for the man and his ideas, based on his own writings and the writings of those who have partnered him in the past), then I would feel honoured and confused... the former a novel experience, the latter, all too common.

I think that I like the 4-6 red suit hand, with, say xx Qxxx Qxxxxx x

However, I'd like to look at my hand first: if I hold short ♠, I'd be more likely to consider a 6-4 minor hand for partner, on the grounds that the opps rate to have fewer than 10 ♠'s

[jdonn]

inquiry, on May 15 2006, 01:40 PM, said:

4) One where we are not allowed to show two suits at once...funny system... but ok...

Actually you were the reason I put the disclaimer, and I see it did its job admirably. Consider yourself preempted

This 'funny system' is played by more than 99.9% of pairs in the USA. Of course, that doesn't mean it isn't funny, but no one here would think it is.

[hrothgar]

jdonn, on May 15 2006, 06:42 PM, said:

2.)AKJx xxx KJT9xx -, w/w, LHO deals.
1♣ p 3NT(13-15) ?

I'm passing

Yes, i have a nice 6-4-3-0 hand
No, I don't particularly like leading against 3NT

With this said and done, I talking about bidding at the 4 level in a non fit auction where both opponents have already shown opening strength. The ooponents have a club fit, but they don't know it and will be looking for blood.

This really doesn't appeal to me, especially white on white.

[joshs]

jdonn, on May 15 2006, 10:42 AM, said:

1.)

Scoring: IMP

---

1♥ 3♠* 3NT* 4♣ 4♥ p

3♠ shows a mini-splinter in any suit, usually 9-11 in high cards, though 'points' are not the overriding concern, opener asked for the suit and signed off when he found out it was clubs. Who is to blame for missing slam? Should responder show the stronger splinter? Should opener do something over 4♣, perhaps a 4♦ last train? Should responder move over 4♥ with his void since 3NT showed some kind of interest, or is that even 'allowed'?


2.)AKJx xxx KJT9xx -, w/w, LHO deals.
1♣ p 3NT(13-15) ?


3.)x xx AK9xx KQT98, r/w, you deal
1♦ p 1NT 4♠ ?


4.)

Scoring: IMP

---

East opens 1♣, west bids 1♥ if possible, east bids 2♣ if possible. Is there a reasonable auction to slam in the face of this opposition bidding? No artificial 1NT overcalls or methods that show both suits at once over 1♣ allowed!


5.)1♣ X p 1♠ X p 2NT
What in blazes does that bid mean?'

EDIT: Numbers added. The first idea of Luis's I ever liked

1. Opener gets most of the blame. Yes responder coulkd have made a stronger splinter (its right on the bubble) north has an easy last train bid...

2. I am a passer. 4D could be a 800 phantom, x could lead to 2 overtricks, since its not our hand I am not that willing to invest imps into the slight chance that it can help us go plus.

3. I guess I pass. You don't get rich from red/white saves, although maybe no one will know you are saving.

4. Can I get to slam?

1C-x-1H-1S
2C-3C(its unclear what a jump in hearts is, since 2H is natural, I think jumps should be splinters, but why do this to partner? since he may think that it just shows a great suit)-P-3S
4D-P-4H-P
4N-P-5D(1)-P
6S

5. 2N is a 2N bid on values (about 11 HCP) usually with 5 spades but not much in the spade suit and probably not balanced. I expect something like:
JTxxx KQx AJxx x

[inquiry]

jdonn, on May 15 2006, 01:54 PM, said:

inquiry, on May 15 2006, 01:40 PM, said:

4) One where we are not allowed to show two suits at once...funny system... but ok...

Actually you were the reason I put the disclaimer, and I see it did its job admirably. Consider yourself preempted

This 'funny system' is played by more than 99.9% of pairs in the USA. Of course, that doesn't mean it isn't funny, but no one here would think it is.

Well, I can play within the quidelines set,,, the usual problem is "how would you bid it" and then when I give my auction, it is, you can't bid that way. The funny system part referred to the lack of any two suited bid (unusual 2NT, michaels cue bid). If you want to block my 1NT shows spades and other minor, all you had to say was 1NT would be natural. That wouldn't be a funny system. That would be what 99% of the people play. But I seriously (very seriously) doubt 99.9% of the people play no bids over 1♣ show two suiters. I would say it is probably closer to the other way around.

[luis]

inquiry, on May 15 2006, 07:31 PM, said:

jdonn, on May 15 2006, 01:54 PM, said:

inquiry, on May 15 2006, 01:40 PM, said:

4) One where we are not allowed to show two suits at once...funny system... but ok...

Actually you were the reason I put the disclaimer, and I see it did its job admirably. Consider yourself preempted

This 'funny system' is played by more than 99.9% of pairs in the USA. Of course, that doesn't mean it isn't funny, but no one here would think it is.

Well, I can play within the quidelines set,,, the usual problem is "how would you bid it" and then when I give my auction, it is, you can't bid that way. The funny system part referred to the lack of any two suited bid (unusual 2NT, michaels cue bid). If you want to block my 1NT shows spades and other minor, all you had to say was 1NT would be natural. That wouldn't be a funny system. That would be what 99% of the people play. But I seriously (very seriously) doubt 99.9% of the people play no bids over 1♣ show two suiters. I would say it is probably closer to the other way around.

DANGER DANGER !
:-)

[jdonn]

Ben, I said no bids that show both suits, which I think is pretty clearly referring to both suits actually held. People in the US can't show all two suiters, and specifically can't show spades and the other minor over a minor suit opening. I think you know what I meant.

[jdonn]

1: I was responder. The first thing, as regards splintering with a void, I think the objections are reasonable but a little overrated. It's not as though any other auction is very descriptive! Perhaps I should have valued my void more and made the stronger splinter, but I hated that I lacked controls outside. If I had Kxxx of spades instead of QJxx I would have done that.

I really think opener is worth 4♦ as a last train move, or 4♠ if you insist. There doesn't seem to be much five level danger to me, and a number of hands make slam, with a number more being on a finesse. For example, could be something like xxx Qxxx AKxxx x, which is much better than a finesse, or Qxx xxxxx AKxx x which is awesome.

2: Well done passers. The opponents are cold for 6♣, but about to play 3NT going down! If you double, you get to either 4♠ down 1 or (more likely) push them to 5♣ making 6. If you bid 4♦, get ready for the pain train. Partner bid 4♦ went for 1400, though perhaps he could have gotten out for less it hardly matters. The full hand:

---

I am personally not the slightest bit tempted to bid. Partner has nothing and you know it, and you have surprise defense against 3NT as well as a good lead.

3: I bid 5♣ but now think I should have passed. Also note that this particular partner often bypasses bad four card majors, so I can't even count on four card support for either minor. I went for 800 opposite Kxx Axx J9x xxxx, and it would have been 1100 except partner kindly provided the seven of clubs. I still think this is close, and I'm sure when I pass next time partner will have xxx Kxx xx Axxxx.

4: I like Josh Sher's auction the best, but it's difficult to bid the slam and I can't fault people for not reaching it. What I HATE HATE HATE is overcalling 1♠ instead of doubling. If you overcall 1♠ you deserve to play your diamond grand there opposite x Axxx Kxxxx xxx. No one loves doubling when offshape, but this hand is just way too good.

5: Josh also came the closest to picking this one off, though for the life of me I can't see why partner would pass over the double with that hand, or the hand he held. KQxx QJx QT9xx J. Disaster ensued as partner and I never got on the same page, and I've still not been convinced by anyone that 2NT should mean anything.

[joshs]

Judging from a bunch of master solver club hands
the auctions:
1X-(1Y)-1N
and 1X-(1Y)-2N

Are suppossed to be balanced/semibalanced hands (most importantly provide 2 card support for partner's suit).

Its funny that when these unbalanced hands comes up, you actually see the vote exactly split between an initial pass and an initial NT bid, with the initial NT bidders admitting they are off shape but prefer to show the values immediately. I guess half the voters secretely do not like the treatment that free NT bids are suppossed to show tolerance for partner's suit.

Personally, I am from the pass and wait school on these hand types. Yes on rare occasion the opps play in their 5-0 fit at the 1 level when you can make 3N. On the other hand since a different suit is being led, you may not have that suit well taken care of.... I just don't like accelerating the auction on a misfit hand. You often can take less tricks than your point count indicates on these misfits.

Another example auction:
(1C)-1H-(1S)-1N

I think that the 1N bidder should just about always have 2 hearts. The main reason to bid NT yourself, instead of passing and defending is to encourage partner to compete the hand on a weak but distributional hand, or try for game on a strong and distributional hand. Beating the opps to NT is only a minor part of the reason to bid (say white vs white).

[Kalvan14]

1. No splinter with a void. S's 1st bid should be 2♦, looking for a secondary fit. Btw, it's not an awful crime missing this slam: the ♣K in N's hand could be replaced with the 2, and would pull the same weight. Now you're playing slam with 24 HCP, and a perfect double-fit.
2. Pass. Pard rates to have a Q or a couple of Js. Is it worth trying to save, after this bidding sequence? Lead the ♦K, and hope for luck.
3. Pass. Saving r vs. w is not a good policy.
4. I'd bid 1♠. Over 2♣, N would rebid 4♠. IMO, S hand is worth a move. Maybe 6♠ is best. Maybe 5♦, which should show a 2 suiter. Depends on the mood and the moment.
5. Opener has shown a good hand, with his double. I'd assume that 2N shows scattered values (say 7-8 HCP, with a spade stopper).

[Codo]

1. 40 % to opener, even with a worthless King, he has 15 HCPs working and a nice shape.
40 % for the system: If you splinter, you should be able to ask about voids
20 % for South for not rebidding 1 Spade and find the Grand Slam in Spade.

2. 4 ♦
3. 5 ♣
4. I had bee happy in 4 ♠ + 2, no way for me to find the slam
5. no idea, maybe a game forcing with clubs and he tried to play 1 Club X first?

[FrancesHinden]

jdonn, on May 16 2006, 12:02 AM, said:

2: Well done passers. The opponents are cold for 6♣, but about to play 3NT going down!

---

Obviously I can't speak for your opponents, but why are we certain West was going to pass 3NT on that hand? Traditionally the 3NT response shows 4-card club support - maybe it didn't here, but you didn't mention anything special?

Quote

5: Josh also came the closest to picking this one off, though for the life of me I can't see why partner would pass over the double with that hand, or the hand he held. KQxx QJx QT9xx J. Disaster ensued as partner and I never got on the same page, and I've still not been convinced by anyone that 2NT should mean anything.

I have to say that if these unbalanced 11-count hands are a pass after 1C x, then you should be playing redouble as artificial, because you clearly are never going to redouble.

I eliminated this as a possible hand because it's not possible.