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Big hand at pairs 2/1 GF, sim pairs

#1 User is offline   CamHenry 

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Posted 2015-January-08, 08:11



Double of the 2 overcall would have shown a negative; pass a semi-positive or balanced positive. The 3 bid shows a full positive response, with at least two of AKQ in the suit. How should the auction proceed? We found a decent result, but I'm wondering how other people get there.
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#2 User is offline   Zelandakh 

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Posted 2015-January-08, 08:57

View PostCamHenry, on 2015-January-08, 08:11, said:

How should the auction proceed?

By requesting an undo - taking up a complete round of bidding to show AKxxx in a balanced hand is sub-optimal.
(-: Zel :-)
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#3 User is offline   phoenix214 

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Posted 2015-January-08, 10:51

4-4
5-7
One guess.
4 clubs sets clubs, 4 spades shows spade cue(pard already showed AK in diamonds, so no point cueing diamonds now)
5 diamonds, shows diamond cue(shortness) and interest in 7 - 7 clubs(well your hand does not get better then this)
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#4 User is offline   ahydra 

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Posted 2015-January-08, 11:02

3D didn't show AK in diamonds, it showed two of AKQ. And generally one doesn't cue a void in partner's suit, as it's rarely a useful feature.

4C-4S seems a sensible start. 4NT might then be viable with South, even with a void, because he has all the other aces. After 5D-5NT-6H (DK+SK or HK) you can count thirteen tricks if North has the former, and only twelve but with several chances for a thirteenth if North has the HK (and hence DQ). So South bids 7C.

ahydra
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#5 User is offline   ggwhiz 

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Posted 2015-January-08, 11:19

That red 2 overcall really smells of a club void and/or a heart void with rho. Or insanity with lho.

I don't like the 3 bid but would likely find 6nt after p - (then by us) 3 - 3 - 3 etc.
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#6 User is offline   wank 

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Posted 2015-January-08, 12:12

4c-4s-keycard-1-kings?-diamonds-another try-spades too - 7nt
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#7 User is offline   phoenix214 

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Posted 2015-January-08, 14:46

I know that you dont cue in partners suit, but how else do you expect to tell him that his AK of diamonds is golden while other is not. Maybe ace-asking there does the job done as well.
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#8 User is offline   nekthen 

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Posted 2015-January-09, 03:20

At pairs do I really want to be in 7? The q is a worry, there is also some risk of a ruff. Plus scores win in the long run. In 7 I'll get 10 or 90. In 6 it will be 45 to 60
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#9 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2015-January-09, 03:47

2 (2) 3
4 4
6 pass

Too many "ifs" for 7. Even 6 might be in jeopardy if partner has say Kxx xxx KQJxx xx.
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#10 User is offline   Zelandakh 

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Posted 2015-January-09, 04:48

View Postnekthen, on 2015-January-09, 03:20, said:

At pairs do I really want to be in 7? The q is a worry, there is also some risk of a ruff. Plus scores win in the long run. In 7 I'll get 10 or 90. In 6 it will be 45 to 60

Frequency of gain wins in the long run. That is not always the same thing as a plus score; otherwise we would not risk a contract for overtricks when a safety play was available. What do you think are the odds 7 makes given these 2 hands? What are the odds other pairs will be in slam? The issue here is one of practicality - what information can be found out. If it is unclear whether the grand is good then naturally one goes low - but that is a different matter from commenting about the "open hand" problem.
(-: Zel :-)
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#11 User is offline   CamHenry 

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Posted 2015-January-09, 05:41

I agree with Zelandakh: the 3 bid did take up a lot of room. S rebid 4, not necessarily setting the suit but quite likely. After a pause, N bid 6 - on the basis that there was no way to find out about second-round heart control after this start. As S, I reasoned partner must have something useful - probably a heart void, or heart filler given LHO's predilection for vile overcalls. He must also have at least a doubleton club, meaning that anything other than Qxx offside was manageable. I therefore bid 7.

LHO led a diamond; I pitched a heart on the honour, then played a round of trumps (intending to cross back to dummy with the K for a second heart pitch, then a club finesse, if trumps were 3-0).


It turns out LHO held Jxx/KQ8xx/QJT/Qx.
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#12 User is offline   MrAce 

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Posted 2015-January-09, 08:30

What I learned from this topic is that when you open 2, they preempt, pd makes a positive respond, and when opener gets to bid his suit the first time, without a jump, this means he has a self sufficient suit and asking for cue. Tough life if god forbid opener does not hold a self sufficient suit and/or 2 suiters.
I think most of the replies were as biased as they could possibly be.
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#13 User is offline   MrAce 

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Posted 2015-January-09, 08:35

View PostCamHenry, on 2015-January-09, 05:41, said:

I agree with Zelandakh: the 3 bid did take up a lot of room. S rebid 4, not necessarily setting the suit but quite likely.


Why is 4 supposed to be quite likely self sufficient, escapes me by a mile.

EDIT: Looking at his own hand, from N's point of view, S is quite likely to have very decent clubs if not solid. I get that. But how does S know that his pd knows this and takes all the bids as cue is a little slippery ground imo.
"Genius has its own limitations, however stupidity has no such boundaries!"
"It's only when a mosquito lands on your testicles that you realize there is always a way to solve problems without using violence!"

"Well to be perfectly honest, in my humble opinion, of course without offending anyone who thinks differently from my point of view, but also by looking into this matter in a different perspective and without being condemning of one's view's and by trying to make it objectified, and by considering each and every one's valid opinion, I honestly believe that I completely forgot what I was going to say."





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#14 User is offline   dave_beer 

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Posted 2015-January-09, 12:09

View Postphoenix214, on 2015-January-08, 14:46, said:

I know that you dont cue in partners suit, but how else do you expect to tell him that his AK of diamonds is golden while other is not. Maybe ace-asking there does the job done as well.

How is partner supposed to know that you have a void instead of A if he has KQ instead of AH..?
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#15 User is offline   Jinksy 

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Posted 2015-January-09, 12:57

View PostMrAce, on 2015-January-09, 08:30, said:

What I learned from this topic is that when you open 2, they preempt, pd makes a positive respond, and when opener gets to bid his suit the first time, without a jump, this means he has a self sufficient suit and asking for cue. Tough life if god forbid opener does not hold a self sufficient suit and/or 2 suiters.
I think most of the replies were as biased as they could possibly be.


What else can it be? 3 must show 5, so in a pinch you could raise that with 3 or a good two. With a two-suiter, even with longer Ds, surely it would make sense to bid his major first?
The "4 is a transfer to 4" award goes to Jinksy - PhilKing
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#16 User is offline   MrAce 

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Posted 2015-January-09, 13:51

View PostJinksy, on 2015-January-09, 12:57, said:

What else can it be? 3 must show 5, so in a pinch you could raise that with 3 or a good two. With a two-suiter, even with longer Ds, surely it would make sense to bid his major first?


What do you bid with AKQx AJx void AKJxxx ? (while even 5 may be too much, you maybe and probably cold for 7 spades if you have a fit in this suit but not in clubs)

-Just bid 3 NT and forget about mentioning that you have a 6 card suit?
-Or bid 4 and take everything pd bids as a cue?
-Or just bid 4 like normal people and do not make everything pd bids a "cue"?

This is all I am saying.

By the way, I do not think 4 by partner should show or promise anything in suit. It is just a cue to confirm clubs or later he may express another hand. And why would pd start with 2 when he holds hand with less than 5 spades or huge discrepancy between his suits like AKJxxx and Jxxxx ? Or is he supposed to make a forcing pass with 2 suiter and try to tell his tale after they raise hearts to some level and find himself in awkward position?
"Genius has its own limitations, however stupidity has no such boundaries!"
"It's only when a mosquito lands on your testicles that you realize there is always a way to solve problems without using violence!"

"Well to be perfectly honest, in my humble opinion, of course without offending anyone who thinks differently from my point of view, but also by looking into this matter in a different perspective and without being condemning of one's view's and by trying to make it objectified, and by considering each and every one's valid opinion, I honestly believe that I completely forgot what I was going to say."





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#17 User is online   mikeh 

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Posted 2015-January-09, 14:06

View Postphoenix214, on 2015-January-08, 10:51, said:

4-4
5-7
One guess.
4 clubs sets clubs, 4 spades shows spade cue(pard already showed AK in diamonds, so no point cueing diamonds now)
5 diamonds, shows diamond cue(shortness) and interest in 7 - 7 clubs(well your hand does not get better then this)

Sorry but either you are allowing knowledge of the hand to distort your thinking, perhaps unconsciously, or you don't know how to bid.

No good player would play that 4 'set clubs'. That would be absurd.

Give opener AQx A Qx AKJxxxx and responder either of xx xxx AKxxx Qxx or xxx xxx AKJxxx x

Would the bidding be different through 4?

On the first hand you want to play in 7 but on the second, 7.

No, the reason 4 set clubs, for you, was to allow 4 to be a cuebid by responder, rather than, say, bidding out his 4=2=5=2 shape, and (even more absurd) 5 to be a cue by opener showing a VOID!!!!! Wow.

The way to avoid this sort of thing, and it happens all the time on BBF with several posters, is to try to blank out one of the hands and imagine the auction as if you were holding the hand you haven't blanked out. Forget that responder has Kxx xxx AKxxx xx. Just imagine you'd opened 2, the auction proceeded to 4 and ask 'what would that mean if I couldn't see his hand'?

When asking that, ask if there are layouts where natural makes sense.

AKQx Ax x AKQxxx opposite Jxxx xx AKxxxx x

How does the auction start? How does it go at the 4-level? How do you find spades if 4 sets trump?

Timo nailed it, btw, and I upvoted his post.
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#18 User is offline   jgillispie 

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Posted 2015-January-09, 17:39

View PostCamHenry, on 2015-January-08, 08:11, said:



Double of the 2 overcall would have shown a negative; pass a semi-positive or balanced positive. The 3 bid shows a full positive response, with at least two of AKQ in the suit. How should the auction proceed? We found a decent result, but I'm wondering how other people get there.


I find this hand to fit the "balanced positive" and would have probably passed at the table.

So, out of curiosity, what does 3♥ by opener mean in this auction? Call me "results", but perhaps this cuebid is best purposed as an unspecified slam probe. You could then get an idea of what partner's whole hand is through some kind of relay auction.

That aside, I would probably continue with something along the lines of an "assumed fit" minorwood keycard auction:
4♣-4♦-
4♥-4♠-
4N-5♣-
7♣/N

4♣- RKC in ♣- a non-sufficient cannot bid 4♣ (it helps to know how this differs from the cue)
4♦- 1/4 (playing 1430)
4♥- Relay (Queen Ask, Spiral-like continuations)
4♠- No ♣Q; ♠K, possibly higher kings
4N- Relay (establishes a force to 6x, otherwise signoff)
5♣- ♦K, possibly higher jacks (here, signing off in 6♣ is no other feature)

This auction reveals that responder has something like:
♠ Kx(xx)
♥ xx(x) --> Possibly the ♥Q, but it doesn't seem necessary to ask for it
♦ AKxxx(x)
♣ X(xx) -> Surely he has at least one ;)

The case for 7N is that you need the clubs to play well regardless. 7N offers the lack of a ruff @ trick one. I wouldn't mind being in 6N, but 6♣ seems incorrect, unless you're in a casual club. So, 7♣ pr 7N it is. Have a whack at it ;)
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#19 User is offline   bdegrande 

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Posted 2015-January-09, 18:50

View PostCamHenry, on 2015-January-09, 05:41, said:

I agree with Zelandakh: the 3 bid did take up a lot of room. S rebid 4, not necessarily setting the suit but quite likely. After a pause, N bid 6 - on the basis that there was no way to find out about second-round heart control after this start. As S, I reasoned partner must have something useful - probably a heart void, or heart filler given LHO's predilection for vile overcalls. He must also have at least a doubleton club, meaning that anything other than Qxx offside was manageable. I therefore bid 7.

LHO led a diamond; I pitched a heart on the honour, then played a round of trumps (intending to cross back to dummy with the K for a second heart pitch, then a club finesse, if trumps were 3-0).


It turns out LHO held Jxx/KQ8xx/QJT/Qx.


That is a truly horrendous red overcall over a 2 bid, It could easily be going for 1400 or more vs. a white slam.
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#20 User is offline   wank 

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Posted 2015-January-09, 19:05

View PostMrAce, on 2015-January-09, 08:30, said:

What I learned from this topic is that when you open 2, they preempt, pd makes a positive respond, and when opener gets to bid his suit the first time, without a jump, this means he has a self sufficient suit and asking for cue. Tough life if god forbid opener does not hold a self sufficient suit and/or 2 suiters.
I think most of the replies were as biased as they could possibly be.


it rather depends what the rest of your system is. for example many people in my locality play 3S directly as 4S, longer diamonds, in which case 4S over 4C would have to be a cue. i believe this is also quite popular in forum land. no reason for it not to apply after 2H.

i rather agree with you about bidding 3 diamonds though. still, that wasn't part of our remit.
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