[chasetb]

Playing 2/1, no Gazzilli/Bart, as dealer you have: ♠AJT96 ♥J ♦AJ3 ♣AK52
EDIT- 1♠ - 3♣/3♦/3♥ would have been 3-9 HCP, if the lower end 7+ cards, if the higher end possibly only 6.

1.) After 1♠ - 1NT (Forcing); how many people agree with bidding 2♣? If it matters, IMPs, all Vul, opponents are pro-client pair, but the client is a Grand Life Master. The other table sitting N-S is also a pro-client pair, the pro has won a Bronze at the Bermuda Bowl while the other is just a Platinum Life Master.

2.)

Spoiler

Who do you blame for missing 6♦, making 7? And how would you bid the hands?

---

It ended up being a push, both tables at 3NT making 7!

[trevahound]

Don't know what a direct 3♦ would have been. If available as natural and invitational, it might have done the trick. I would have rebid 2♣ without any great remorse. Tough to get to 6♦ when none of us can find a place to bid them.

I had two LOLs at a recent sectional bid merrily to slam in the 4th suit, 6♥ (a real CtC contract), and with a side suit of AKQempty sixth opposite a stiff, instead of ruffing any they drew three rounds of trump, all following, and then three rounds of clubs, both of us following, and claimed. My point is bridge is a simpler game at some level, but not so simple for your GLM client (??). My opps would have the same beginning to their auction, responder rebidding 2♦ over 2♣, opener raising that, and then good old blackwood, and 6♦. Ah, a simple game.

[PhantomSac]

2C is fine, obviously you're max but if it goes all pass it's not necessarily a disaster and it rarely goes all pass. If you made the jack of hearts and a pointed jack into a queen I would jumpshift.

3N is a wild overbid, and on top of that if you don't bid 1N with game forcing hands it should show a club fit (since the reason your hand that was not GF now became a GF must be that the club bid from partner upgraded your hand). However, since the question is "why did we miss slam?" an overbid at some point is probably not at fault! South should definitely move over it. If the NS pair do not play that 3N showed a club fit then obviously the bid would be 4D, probably even if 3N showed a club fit 4D is the bid as it describes the hand well.

It is amusing because if north had bid 2N, south would have bid 3D and it would have been trivial to get to slam (eg 3H 3N 4D etc).

[SteveMoe]

2♣ seems normal.
3N got the punishment it deserved.
I always enjoy when the natural rebid (3♦) turns out to be the winning action.
1♠ - 1N
2♣ - 3♦
4♥ - 4♠
6♦

[PhantomSac]

I am not a fan of this 3D bid, our diamonds are very bad and we have Kx of spades. I am not eager to play in 3D opposite a stiff, 2N might not be great either in that case but we might be able to take 8 tricks outside of diamonds with the help of spades. 2N to me is a pretty natural rebid to me, we have every suit stopped and 10-11 and no fit.

What was souths rationale behind passing 3N anyways?

[whereagles]

PhantomSac, on 2014-September-12, 16:45, said:

I am not a fan of this 3D bid, our diamonds are very bad and we have Kx of spades. I am not eager to play in 3D opposite a stiff (...)

Well I quite like 3♦. It's descriptive, spot on hcp and odds are you won't be playing there opposite a singleton too often (as you would if opener's rebid were 100% min). A calculated risk. Agree ♠Kx is more valuable than it seems though.

[bdegrande]

2♣ is fine.. There is some risk of partner passing a hand that can make game, but you dodged that bullet. 3NT is an overbid, but that should have made it easier to get to slam. There is no way South can pass 3NT opposite a partner who wants to be in game opposite a minimum opener. I would bid 4♦, completing the pattern and implying a singleton heart at most, and then raise partner's 5♦ to 6♦. By my hand evaluation methods, which much prefer aces and kings to queens and jacks, this is a hand which will insist on slam (not even invite) once partner is willing to commit to a game. It is a good hand for Gazzilli or a strong club system, though.

[chasetb]

I was South. I passed 3NT for two reasons:
1.) This partner is super-aggressive VUL, and jumps to 3NT far too often (almost all 10-counts, and plenty of 9-counts). She doesn't pattern out half the time either, so for all I knew it could have been a 2542/1543/1642/2641 hand (we've only played together a few times, but a few different times she has jumped with similar stuff. One time I held the huge hand, but 3NT barely squeaked by because everything was off.)
2.) My team was the underdog, not only against them, but against most of the field. I didn't see a reason to bypass 3NT.

I think a 3♦ rebid is right on HCP, but wrong on the suit quality. Because of the 1♠ - 3♦ range, 2♦ is probably the better bid, and I WILL SPLINTER with 3♥ over 2♦, thus finding 6♦. Diamonds broke 2-2, with the 'Queen over the Jack' if you believe in that; Spades were 3-3 as well. I did find it funny that the other table missed it as well, partners didn't remember the auction however and since it was a 3-way, I had no time to ask them about it. Overall, we did well, only this hand and another hand that I'll write up soon gave us problems.

[FM75]

This hand is an example of a hand that probably plays better in a precision system. 1M somewhat under-describes the strength of the hands as an opener.

It is a solid strong club opening hand.
In OCP a likely auction ends up in 6♦

1♣ - 2♦ (8+hcp, 5+♦)
3♦(trump ask) - 4♣ (H6th where H = A,K or Q)
4♥ (control ask in ♥ - cheap bid) - 5♥ (1st round control Axx or void)
5♠ (control ask in ♠) - 6♦ (2nd round)

[Zelandakh]

I realize this thread is a year old but I am still way behind on my reading. In any case, I wonder at the popularity of the 3♦ rebid here. Given the definition of an immediate 3♦ response, what does everyone think a 2♦ rebid would show? Undiscussed it would not surprise me if some took 3♦ as a splinter with a club fit here!

[barmar]

Zelandakh, on 2015-November-10, 09:23, said:

Given the definition of an immediate 3♦ response, what does everyone think a 2♦ rebid would show?

My guess is that a 2♦ bid would be a 5-card suit, since weak hands with 6+ are supposed to make the WJS on the first round.

But if you make the agreement that responder never bids a 5-card suit with a weak hand, then I can see your point that it could be a cheap way to show a hand like this. But it also means he has no good rebid with a weak 5-5 in the reds.

[jogs]

barmar, on 2015-November-10, 10:02, said:

My guess is that a 2♦ bid would be a 5-card suit, since weak hands with 6+ are supposed to make the WJS on the first round.

But if you make the agreement that responder never bids a 5-card suit with a weak hand, then I can see your point that it could be a cheap way to show a hand like this. But it also means he has no good rebid with a weak 5-5 in the reds.

Is 2♦ non-forcing or shutout? If non-forcing passing out 2♦ may be the best spot.

[Zelandakh]

jogs, on 2015-November-10, 14:03, said:

Is 2♦ non-forcing or shutout? If non-forcing passing out 2♦ may be the best spot.

Naturally it is non-forcing when the hand is already limited by the 1NT response but, aside from Barry's suggested 1552 hand, with what other might you be wanting to make a weak 2♦ call here?