[Free]

There's another option: inverted Majors (ask Misho about it) But that's a lot more complicated than your own best solution (imo), nr 4. Bid 1NT with 4441 or strong NT. The only thing you'll have to take into account is when to bid nmf or checkback or whatever you play, since partner can be minimum with 4441.

[helene_t]

I wouldn't worry too much about the 4441-shapes. Most of the times one of the following options will do:
- Pass with 12 HCPs. You will probably have the ideal hand for a double in the next round.
- If you have a super 4-card, pretend that it's a 5-card.
- With a singleton ace or king, or a hand with soft values, open 1NT.
- Hope that partner doesn't take a false preference to your first suit on a doubleton.

Otherwise, you might consider playing the 2♦-opening as a three-suiter, 12-15 HCPs.

[junyi_zhu]

mila85, on Feb 9 2005, 01:02 PM, said:

Thanks all for the answers.

I asked because I wanted to know if there are people here with who I can discuss 'Acol' problems. It means that they play the system and know how it works.

Here is one of them:
As I wrote I open 4card major and weak no trupmh. 4441 hands are opened 1d, with singleton diamond 1c.
Opener: 1-4-4-4 13hcp
Responder: 5-4-2-2 7hcp
The bidding goes:
1d-1s
2c-?
The weak responces are only 2s and 2d. We will play in 6card fit when we have 4-4 heards.
Possible solutions:
1. Play 2h as natural (not 4th suit forcing) and weak here. It destroy all the general principles and 2d is very often the best contract (opener has 5+ diamonds and not 4 heards). This is a bad solution.
2. 1d-2d shows 5-4 in majors. I play it as inverted minor now but it's not a problem. Because I play walsh responces and 3c as natural (6 clubs) GF I bid 2c with only few hands. So I can play 2c as natural or 10+ with support. The problem is with strong nt: 1d-2d/? I can bid 2nt now but partner can't invite me. And if partner has minimum I will play 2nt instead of 1nt.
3. Open 1-4-4-4 1h. But I like when 1h opening shows 5 heards when it's 12-15.
4. 1d-1s/1nt is strong nt or 1-4-4-4. I have enough space to ask now. But it means use different answers to new minor forcing than in other sequences. And not to forget it!
What do you think?

I rebid 1NT with 4-4-4-1, 12 to 14 and partner bids my shortness. I open 1D and
rebid 2C when I have 15 or more HCP, so I give myself some more HCP to handle 4-2 fit at 2 level, and often, I can make anotherbid over 2D when I hold 16 or 17 HCP. Rebidding 2C with 4-4 in minors and only 12 to 13 HCP is rather bad I feel because 1NT is often the par contract in this kind of situations. If you have two way checkback, you usually have no much difficulties when you rebid 1NT with a singleton in partner's suit, because you can often show it later. Also, you may find your H4-4 fit only over 1NT rebid, over 2C rebid, you probably hard to stop at 2H. Still, playing 4 card major, you can probably open 1H instead of 1D with 1-4-4-4 shape.

[arrows]

Quote

I asked because I wanted to know if there are people here with who I can discuss 'Acol' problems. It means that they play the system and know how it works.

I happen to be someone know a little bit about ACOL and actually play it seriously
once a while. In risk of huckstering my bidding philosophy here, I would like share some of my opinions.

In my ACOL system, I dumped strong twos, play multi 2D and muiderberg 2M.
I play weak NT throughout and 1NT rebid 15-18HCP.

Special effort made for 4441 hands, because I firmly believe that the reason
one bid 2nd suit is showing 5+ cards in one's first suit, and this is particularly
important when the first suit is a major.

I suggest that integrate strong 4441(16+HCPand 5+ controls) into strong open,
(2C or 2D as you wish). Not because we are having fancy weapon specially for
these hands, rather, it would make our reverse more robust (longer first suit
guaranteed).

For 4441 hands with less high card value, I open 1♣ with red
siglton, open 1♦ with black siglton. Hence, If I open 1M, and rebid a new
suit, I show 5+ cards in the major.

I solve the 1♦-1♠-? problem by tuning the response structure, rather than the
rebid. Facing the open of 1 minor, just make the response of 2♥ show
4-5 ♥ and 5♠, below invitational value.

Yeah, I give up the strong jump shift, which could be useful for a slamish
one suiter. But it's far less frequent and the problem of not having SJS is far
less severe.

[mila85]

Quote

But that's a lot more complicated than your own best solution (imo), nr 4. Bid 1NT with 4441 or strong NT. The only thing you'll have to take into account is when to bid nmf or checkback or whatever you play, since partner can be minimum with 4441.

I forgot to write a disadvatage it has:
1d-1s
1nt-?
I will be afraid to sing off in 2s with 6 or good 5 spades and a weak hand.
It solves big but rare problem and creates small but common one...

With strong hand is no problem:
1d-1s
1nt-?
2d and 2M is now weak and natural.
2c is inv+ and ask for 3card support.
Responces:
2s (partner's suit)...minimum and 3 card supp.
2h (other major)...maximum and 3 card supp.
2nt/3nt....minimum/maxim without 3 card supp.
Because I open major first I can't have 4 cards in major.

1h-1s
1nt-2c
2d....shows 4-4 in majors

1d-1s
1nt-2c
2d.....shows 1-4-4-4 (but 16-18 now)

If I played 1d-1s/1nt as strong nt or 12+ 1-4-4-4, 2d would show 12-15 and this distribution (I must be able to play 2d) a 2h would show maximum with 3card support or 1-4-4-4, 16-18.

Quote

I solve the 1♦-1♠-? problem by tuning the response structure, rather than the
rebid. Facing the open of 1 minor, just make the response of 2♥ show
4-5 ♥ and 5♠, below invitational value.
Yeah, I give up the strong jump shift, which could be useful for a slamish
one suiter. But it's far less frequent and the problem of not having SJS is far
less severe.

It's similar to my 2nd solution. I prefer to show 5-4 in majors by 2d because I can pass it with weak hand and a lot of diamonds (I opened 1d).
Giving up strong jump shift has another problem:
1d-1h
2d-?
What do you bid with 6heards and invit hand?
What do you bid with 6heards and GF hand?

[arrows]

Quote

It's similar to my 2nd solution. I prefer to show 5-4 in majors by 2d because I can pass it with weak hand and a lot of diamonds (I opened 1d).
Giving up strong jump shift has another problem:
1d-1h
2d-?
What do you bid with 6heards and invit hand?
What do you bid with 6heards and GF hand?

For me, giving up the natural meaning of 1♦-2♦ is too much, giving up
the SJS seems more reasonable.

1♦-1♥
2♦-?

I can argue that here 2♥ is invitational, because 2♦ is already
a playable partial and it's hard to justify why 2♥ is a better spot.
Thus jumping 3♥ is GF.

Okey, let's suppose we really really want 2♥ to be "weak to play", we can
still use AI (artificial invitation or "the 3rd suit forcing") to solve the problem,
again, jumping 3♥ is GF.