.Apparently it's tough to get a handle on it. From the
Times article:
Quote
That led economists to surmise that other factors were at play. In new research, the Kaiser Family Foundation
estimated that the recession accounted for about three-quarters of the lower spending trajectory, with the rest attributed to other factors not directly related to the economy. Professor Cutler of Harvard calculates that the recession accounted for about 37 percent.
75% and 33% are two very different numbers.
The following paragraph:
Quote
Among other factors, the studies found that rising out-of-pocket payments had played a major role in the decline. The proportion of workers with employer-sponsored health insurance enrolled in a plan that required a deductible climbed to about three-quarters in 2012 from about half in 2006, the Kaiser Family Foundation
has found. Moreover, those deductibles — the amount a person needs to pay before insurance steps in to cover claims — have risen sharply. That exposes workers to a larger share of their own health costs, and generally forces them to spend less.
This shouts questions, at least to me. These workers are spending less on their health. Good if the deleted spending would have been for whimsey, bad if the deleted spending was for important care. Bad for the patient of course, but also quite possibly bad for the bottom line over a span of time. I hope they have some idea of which sort of spending is being deferred or cancelled.
A later paragraph:
Quote
In a new study in Health Affairs, Michael E. Chernew of the Harvard Medical School and his co-authors
estimate that rising out-of-pocket payments, like deductibles and copays, account for about 20 percent of the decline in health spending.
If we take the Kaiseer estimate that the slowdown accounts for 75% and the Chernew estimate that rising co-pays account for about 20%, we are close to 100%. Close enough for government work, as the expression goes.
I often find news stories amusing. Here we have the Kaiser group estimating 75% and Professor Cutler saying 37%. Might the reporter have asked each of these sources how they explain the huge discrepancy in results? Do they each feel that the other estimate was based on shoddy work? Quite often, it turns out that people with radically different numerical results are using words in substantially different ways. "the recession accounted for" is not exactly free from ambiguity, intended or not.
I have mentioned before that I was listening to some radio discussion (on NPR, not Fox) where two guests were presumably referring to the same data, one describing it as having a 3% effect, the other as a 50% effect, and the host just calmly let them blabber on, never once raising the issue that seemed obvious to me: "Precisely what do you mean by 3% effect and 50% effect?". Either one of them was lying, or they were using words very differently (not alwasy quite the same as lying).