[barsikb]

Dealer: North, Vul: E/W

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[TWO4BRIDGE]

Removed post..... missed that North's club suit is only 5 cards ( not 6 ) .

[Antrax]

Don, did you notice the forum and that "10" is one card?

1♣ - (1♦) - 1♠ - (p)
2♣ (no need for stopperless NT, the suit is good enough) - (p) - 2♦* - (p)
2♥ - (p) - 3NT

Or:
1♣ - (2♦) - 2♠ - (p)
3♣ - (p) - 3♦* - (p)
3♥ - (p) - 3NT


* Note the cue bids have different meanings. In the first case N denies three card support because S might have only 4 ♠. In the second N just denies a ♦ stopper. In both cases S would prefer N play NT because his stopper is not positional.

[the_clown]

1♣-(1♦)-1♠
2♣-2♦
2♥-2♠
3♠-4♠

[P_Marlowe]

If you reached 3NT and received a diamond lead, going down in the process,
the only reaction would be "Next Board".

With kind regards
Marlowe

[fromageGB]

A variation on the above :
1♣ (1♦) 1♠ p
2♣ p 2♦ p
2♥ p 3♦* p
3♠ p 4♠

3♦ played as not natural, but a general forcing bid. Opener has to bid something, and spades is the best option.

[neilkaz]

P_Marlowe, on 2013-April-22, 01:50, said:

If you reached 3NT and received a diamond lead, going down in the process,
the only reaction would be "Next Board".

With kind regards
Marlowe

Perhaps I am missing something but if you reach 3NT what does RHO pitch on 4♠?

[barsikb]

Thank you for all the answers. 3NT makes with any defense if I see it correctly.

This bidding is easiest for me to understand. What if East rebid his Diamonds on the second round of bidding?

Antrax, on 2013-April-21, 10:41, said:

Don, did you notice the forum and that "10" is one card?

1♣ - (1♦) - 1♠ - (p)
2♣ (no need for stopperless NT, the suit is good enough) - (p) - 2♦* - (p)
2♥ - (p) - 3NT

[mikeh]

There is a lot more to this hand than the posts so far have picked up on.

Consider the defence to 3N on a diamond lead.

Say it is low to the K, and declarer ducks. E now returns the suit and W has to unblock the Q. That should be simple but can be overlooked by a defender who is not paying attention.

Declarer plays a spade to the K. A good W will play the 9 on this trick. He can see that partner will be short, and will be having to make discards on the run of the suit, and he wants partner to know immediately that declarer has no losers in spades. Compare partner's decisions if West held 109xxx rather than 987xx. If you insist that W give count on the first trick, then make him play the 9 on the 2nd trick. Count should be unnecessary: S would have bid 4♠ with a 6 card suit and only one diamond stopper.

Now the spotlight turns to East. He can count 5 spades, the heart A (declarer has to have that card), the diamond A for 7 tricks. The only possible source of the 9th trick will be in clubs.

At the same time he knows that he can't pitch 3 hearts, since declarer can safely cash the heart A before committing to clubs, and he can't pitch more than one diamond, else he'll not have enough tricks to beat 3N once he wins the club K.

The only hope is that he can win the stiff club K.

Now, when we are given all 4 hands, we 'know' that stiffing our club K is giving away overtricks.

But in the real world, unless we have telegraphed the possession of the club K, it is usually safe to stiff it, especially if done earlier than necessary. Assuming we have bid just the once, or even if we bid 2♦ over 2♣ (why we'd do that is a mystery to me), why would declarer assume that we have x KQ10x KJ109xx Kx rather than x KQ10x KJ109xx xx?

It is important to understand that neither defenders nor declarers play double dummy. This is an important limitation on double dummy analsyis, btw. Feed this into GIB, and 3N never goes down. At the table, an expert E will go plus a significant percentage of the time.

When defending or declaring, try to picture the problems from your opponent's point of view. You know that he is odds-on to hook the club, so long as he doesn't 'know' that you hold that card. If he is going to hook, what is the cost of stiffing the K?

My suggestion would be to pitch an encouraging heart, then a club, then a heart, then a diamond.

[P_Marlowe]

neilkaz, on 2013-April-22, 06:21, said:

Perhaps I am missing something but if you reach 3NT what does RHO pitch on 4♠?

I did not look to closely into the play, just looked at possible simple
auctions which all lead to 3NT.
And since reaching 3NT seemed normal, even going down would just would have
meant, normal contract, next board, if it makes ... even better, the normal
contract makes.

With kind regards
Marlowe

[MrAce]

Why are we all assuming that East, who overcalled 1♦, will pass over 2♣ with no wasted 12 hcp, awesome spots, a very likely working Kx and 6-4 hand ?

I have a feeling that if we saw West has something like JTxx Jxxxx Ax xx, we would come up with more suitable bid than pass by East.

[Antrax]

Timo, the OP asked about what happens when E bids 2♦ on his second turn.

[MrAce]

Antrax, on 2013-April-24, 05:48, said:

Timo, the OP asked about what happens when E bids 2♦ on his second turn.

I saw that, but everyone else seemed to ignore this fact in their prefered auctions. This was surprise to me.

Obviously responder (south) will not be able to cue at 2 level if East bids 2♦ . Simple 2♦ by East will waste entire 2 level for NS (Imo south will be forced to cue at 3 level) After this the actions of North are debatable.

[Antrax]

I ignored it because I don't know

[barsikb]

Antrax, on 2013-April-24, 21:00, said:

I ignored it because I don't know

Is there anyone who knows please?

[MrAce]

barsikb, on 2013-April-27, 20:12, said:

Is there anyone who knows please?

If E bids 2♦, imo S should cue (3♦) to make sure pd knows we are not going to stop before game.

Afetr that N may bid 3♥ or 3♠, it all depends on NS agreement about what would 2♥ by South be over 2♦, forcing or not ? If 2♥ would be forcing, then North now knows south can not have 4 card ♥ therefore he has an easy bid of 3♠ which will end up playing 4♠. However if North chooses 3♥ they are likely gonna end up playing 3NT, after all south has to bid 3NT at some point with Ax ♦ .

[Antrax]

Shouldn't 3♠ show three cards here, assuming OP plays the standard 1M = 4+, X = both majors 4+ after 1♣-(1♦)?

[MrAce]

Antrax, on 2013-April-28, 03:14, said:

Shouldn't 3♠ show three cards here, assuming OP plays the standard 1M = 4+, X = both majors 4+ after 1♣-(1♦)?

This is true in theory but w/o ♦ stopper and Kx ♠ he can bid 3♠. Responder probably looking for 3 card spade or Hx spade, or ♦ stopper.

It all depends, what would south bid over 1♦ and then 2♦ with 5♠ + 4♥ 8 hcp and 14 hcp ?

[Antrax]

3♥ probably?

[MrAce]

Antrax, on 2013-April-28, 07:04, said:

3♥ probably?

Then N has an easy 3♠ bid since his pd can not have 4 card ♥ (over 3♦ cue)