Posted 2013-March-03, 10:22
Over your actual 3♥ bid I like your partner's decision to bid 3♠ and then 4♥ showing a hand worht more than a direct raise to 4♥ and, presumably, something in spades. At the time of the 3♠ bid you say fsf, although I might prefer simply calling it a general forcing bid. But 3♠ followed by 4♥ is surely a strong raise to 4♥. I assume that there is a good play for 6♥ here also, losing only to the Q of trump and taking five hearts, five diamonds, two spades.
All in all, a good auction.
Now if instead you bid 3♦ I would expect your partner to bid 3♠ and you to bid 4♣ after which I imagine one or the other of you will put it in 6♦. I suppose that there is a play for 7, but 6 seems enough.
In general after the 3♦ I think 4♦ should probably be a slam try, not a re-invit, but I would be interested in hearing from others on this. It's true that at either matchpoints or imps being able to stop on a dime in 4m, when 3NT is going down, will often score very well. But on an auction of 1♦-1♥-2♣-3♦-4♦, as an ivit, it seems to be far from clear just how responder is supposed to decide whether to bid 5. Probably it's just best for opener to pass 3♦, bid 5♦, or make a slam try. But I will be interested in other views on this.
Ken