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after 3C,then ? bidding

#1 User is offline   yin970902 

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Posted 2012-June-12, 03:56

Use 2/1;

process:
W--N--E--S
-----------1NT
p-2NT-p--3
p-3NT(?)

2NT means transfer to 3; then how to bid after 3?3NT is suitable?
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#2 User is online   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2012-June-12, 04:05

The south hand is a monster (no quacks, nice 5 card suit) and I'd treat it as too good for a 15-17 1N.

I'd also like to be able to bid 3 over 3 (if I'm not allowed to break the transfer, once partner transfers to clubs this is worth way more than 17) so that partner can evaluate his Ax, xx, QJx, Qxxxxx as being huge.
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#3 User is offline   Codo 

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Posted 2012-June-12, 05:08

I guess 3 was forced and said nothing about clubs?
I like 3 NT. It shows a mild slam try and this is what I have. Partner with his monster will surely accept.
Kind Regards

Roland


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#4 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2012-June-12, 07:55

I would bid 1NT - 3NT for sure. North does not have a mild slam try.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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#5 User is offline   kenrexford 

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Posted 2012-June-12, 08:07

Opening 1NT is terrible, IMO, unless "15-17" means "15+ to 18-." Even then debatable.
Having opened 1NT, not accepting the slam invite would be bizarre.

The invite, however, is quite aggressive. You seem to need either Opener to have a hand where he should have opened a suit and then jumped to 2NT, or a specific moster with AK in clubs, diamond Ace, and K-Q-x-x(-x) in a major, which is fairly specific. Generally, an invite of slam would need about five cover cards, which is difficult to reliably generate missing the Ace-King of trumps. When Opener will often be looking at the Ace-King of trumps to accept, however, he will expect that he needs about 4 1/2 covers, so I suppose that the invite is not complete insanity, but wow.
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#6 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2012-June-12, 16:26

View Posthan, on 2012-June-12, 07:55, said:

I would bid 1NT - 3NT for sure. North does not have a mild slam try.


I certainly agree with this.
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#7 User is online   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2012-June-13, 04:34

View Postkenrexford, on 2012-June-12, 08:07, said:

Opening 1NT is terrible, IMO, unless "15-17" means "15+ to 18-." Even then debatable.
Having opened 1NT, not accepting the slam invite would be bizarre.

The invite, however, is quite aggressive. You seem to need either Opener to have a hand where he should have opened a suit and then jumped to 2NT, or a specific moster with AK in clubs, diamond Ace, and K-Q-x-x(-x) in a major, which is fairly specific. Generally, an invite of slam would need about five cover cards, which is difficult to reliably generate missing the Ace-King of trumps. When Opener will often be looking at the Ace-King of trumps to accept, however, he will expect that he needs about 4 1/2 covers, so I suppose that the invite is not complete insanity, but wow.

I think your conclusion is right, but analysis flawed in that there are other hands that will do, Kx, Kxxx, AKxx, Kxx is plenty for example, but there is a certain specificity to the hands needed, either a doubleton spade, a major KQ, or a 5 card suit to the AK, no unconnected quacks.

There are plenty of maximum hands where slam is close to no play, Kxx, Kxx, Axx, AKxx just has 2 losers despite being 17 points all aces and kings with 4 trumps for example. It depends how mild a slam invite 3N is and how easily you can stop in 4N/5 as to whether you can afford to make the invite in the first place.
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