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slam interest by a passed hand over a minimum opening what does it mean?

#1 User is offline   mikl_plkcc 

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Posted 2012-June-05, 23:06



How come a passed hand has a slam interest in diamonds? If he really has, why didn't he opened any level of diamonds? I doubt it and threw in a penalty double, thinking that the auction is logically impossible. Unfortunately, the contract made!!!!!

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#2 User is offline   Antrax 

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Posted 2012-June-06, 01:11

Why double? If the slam is illogical, -50 will already be a good result, no?
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#3 User is offline   Yu18772 

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Posted 2012-June-06, 01:37

South is not a bridge player, but this is not a reason to bid like him :)
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#4 User is offline   Quantumcat 

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Posted 2012-June-06, 02:00

View PostAntrax, on 2012-June-06, 01:11, said:

Why double? If the slam is illogical, -50 will already be a good result, no?
What did you lead? ♥A?


If playing matchpoints, they probably have close to a 100% board anyway if they find this slam and it's making. So you won't be risking much. Anyway, let's assume these guys were misguided when they bid to slam instead of game. Possibly, some people will be in 3NT not making when everyone else is in 5♦ making. You don't want to get a worse score, or tie with them. Any defender in that situation certainly won't double, they'll be quite grateful for their positive score. So if you want to beat them, you need to double.

So, you might be turning a 10% board into a 0% board, or you might be turning a 75% board into a 100% board. So you might as well double.

In imps you may as well double too - not sure of the actual numbers but if it makes you might lose 200 points (could be insignificant if your teammates don't get to slam). But in the times where the opponents are complete idiots and it is going five off, you definitely want to get your 1100 instead of 250!!
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