[InTime]

Scoring: MP

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What is the best way to bid these hands in a 2/1 system?
Regards

[Phil]

With great difficulty.

[kenrexford]

Actually, not horribly difficult. One reasonable auction:

Opener: 1♥
Responder: 1♠
Opener: 3♣ (GF, hearts and clubs or self-playing hearts)
Responder: 4♣ (club fit)
Opener: 4♥ (self-playing hearts)
Responder: 4♠ (spade cue, slam interest)
Opener: 5♣ (slam interest, cue)
Responder: 5♦ (cue, slam interest, not enough info)
Opener: 6♥

[karlson]

I think I would start 1h-1s-3h and I wouldn't get to slam.

[InTime]

kenrexford, on Jun 7 2010, 02:14 PM, said:

Actually, not horribly difficult.  One reasonable auction:

Opener: 1♥
Responder: 1♠
Opener: 3♣ (GF, hearts and clubs or self-playing hearts)
Responder: 4♣ (club fit)
Opener: 4♥ (self-playing hearts)
Responder: 4♠ (spade cue, slam interest)
Opener: 5♣ (slam interest, cue)
Responder: 5♦ (cue, slam interest, not enough info)
Opener: 6♥

I will appreciate if you can extend on what you mean with a self-playing suit. Is it something like AKJ10xx, AQJ10xx, KQJ10xx etc.?
Regards

[kenrexford]

InTime, on Jun 7 2010, 02:43 PM, said:

kenrexford, on Jun 7 2010, 02:14 PM, said:

Actually, not horribly difficult.  One reasonable auction:

Opener: 1♥
Responder: 1♠
Opener: 3♣ (GF, hearts and clubs or self-playing hearts)
Responder: 4♣ (club fit)
Opener: 4♥ (self-playing hearts)
Responder: 4♠ (spade cue, slam interest)
Opener: 5♣ (slam interest, cue)
Responder: 5♦ (cue, slam interest, not enough info)
Opener: 6♥

I will appreciate if you can extend on what you mean with a self-playing suit. Is it something like AKJ10xx, AQJ10xx, KQJ10xx etc.?
Regards

I'm not exactly sure where the line is for a self-playing suit, but this qualifies.

I mean, if hearts split 5-2, partner with a void, I probably still have 9 easy tricks in my own hand, if this is played in hearts. In 3NT, in contrast, I might lose the first four or five diamond tricks, then win the spade Ace, then lose the heart Ace, then lose a few more tricks in spades.

[helene_t]

1♥-1♠
2nt-3♣
3♥-3NT
pass

[Fluffy]

helene_t, on Jun 7 2010, 07:55 PM, said:

1♥-1♠
2nt-3♣
3♥-3NT
pass

that's my bidding, I don't think I am gonna override 3NT, even at IMPs

[ONEferBRID]

karlson, on Jun 7 2010, 02:22 PM, said:

I think I would start 1h-1s-3h and I wouldn't get to slam.

ditto

[ONEferBRID]

Starting similary as Ken, but finding out about key cards first and K's next ( even w/o all key cards ). This might be called " bass ackwards" ( ass-backwards) :

Opener: 1♥
Responder: 1♠
Opener: 3♣! (GF, hearts and clubs or self-playing hearts)
Responder: 4♣ (4+club fit = showing 1 key card )
   The showing replies are:
    3NT! = 0 or 3
   4C! = 1 ; 4 nigh on impossible
   4D! = 2 - cQ
   4S! = 2 + cQ

Note: Responder by-passed the direct 3D!, 3H and 4H bids, which are used for other hand descriptions. ( the 3D! bid is a relay which can be used to get to 3NT; thus the direct 3NT bid is used in the RKC-showing steps ).

After 4C! = 1 key, then specific ask for K's ( not grand slam tries; Opener is in charge and may sign off with any Ht bid ):

Opener: 4D! = cQ-ask
Responder: 4S! = cQ +sK, denying hK or hQ

Opener: 4NT! = 2nd K-ask
Responder: 5C = no more K's ( note, Opener could then stop in 5H ) or    5D = dK.

Opener: 6H

[Cyberyeti]

A hand where you want to be playing an old fashioned strong 2, makes it easy.

I don't know how you bid it in 2/1.

We bid:

1H-1S
2N-3C (GF unbalanced/semi forced)
3H-3N
4H-5H (can I guarantee a double diamond stop/or could use keycard, either will do at this point)
6H

[junyi_zhu]

InTime, on Jun 7 2010, 07:04 PM, said:

Scoring: MP

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What is the best way to bid these hands in a 2/1 system?
Regards

seems acol strong two works well here.
2H(8 tricks) 2S(natural)
3H(8 tricks, H one suiter, good suit) 4D( cue)
4S(cue, or bid 4NT if you play kickback) 5C( cue CQ, since 4D denied C control)
6H(CK is a huge card now).

[quiddity]

I would start 1H-1S; 3H and responder has a close-ish decision whether to try for slam with 4D. If he bids 4D I think opener definitely kicks it in with the ace of partner's suit, but with 12 points and no fit I would probably just bid 3NT (double stop in both unbid suits and it's matchpoints) and play there.

I don't understand rebidding 2NT with opener's hand - KQJT-6th of a major, no tenaces, nothing in diamonds?

[xcurt]

Some people are showing a strong 2 and others are showing an invitational jump rebid after a 1-over-1. I'm with the group that thinks the west hand is a gameforce after 1H-1S, I guess I would rebid 3NT. After that we should reach 6NT.

[suokko]

xcurt, on Jun 8 2010, 05:03 AM, said:

Some people are showing a strong 2 and others are showing an invitational jump rebid after a 1-over-1. I'm with the group that thinks the west hand is a gameforce after 1H-1S, I guess I would rebid 3NT. After that we should reach 6NT.

minimum for acol 2 is invitational hand (5 losers). So ranges do actually overlap.

for me this hand is still invitational after 1S response. But when playing without an unamed Italian convention I would force to game with 3C.

[mich-b]

I think that 1♥ - 1♠ - 3♥ is a normal start, and disagree with those who think the West hand is a GF after a 1♠ response (especially considering how light many of us may be for a 1♠ response).